Presentation Layer and Application Layer

1. Which is not a application layer protocol?
a) HTTP
b) SMTP
c) FTP
d) TCP
Answer: d
Explanation: TCP is transport layer protocol.

2. The packet of information at the application layer is called __________
a) Packet
b) Message
c) Segment
d) Frame
Answer: b
Explanation: For Application, Presentation and Session layers there is no data format for message. Message is message as such in these three layers. But when it comes to Transport, Network, Data and Physical layer they have data in format of segments, packets, frames and bits respectively.

 

3. Which one of the following is an architecture paradigms?
a) Peer to peer
b) Client-server
c) HTTP
d) Both Peer-to-Peer & Client-Server
Answer: d
Explanation: HTTP is a protocol.

 

4. Application developer has permission to decide the following on transport layer side
a) Transport layer protocol
b) Maximum buffer size
c) Both Transport layer protocol and Maximum buffer size
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Application layer provides the interface between applications and the network. So application developer can decide what transport layer to use and what should be its maximum buffer size.

 

5. Application layer offers _______ service.
a) End to end
b) Process to process
c) Both End to end and Process to process
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: End to End service is provided in the application layer. Whereas process to process service is provided at the transport layer.

 

6. E-mail is _________
a) Loss-tolerant application
b) Bandwidth-sensitive application
c) Elastic application
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Because it can work with available throughput.

 

7. Pick the odd one out.
a) File transfer
b) File download
c) E-mail
d) Interactive games
Answer: d
Explanation: File transfer, File download and Email are services provided by the application layer and there are message and data oriented.

 

8. Which of the following is an application layer service?
a) Network virtual terminal
b) File transfer, access, and management
c) Mail service
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The services provided by the application layer are network virtual terminal, file transfer, access and management, mail services, directory services, various file and data operations.

 

9. To deliver a message to the correct application program running on a host, the _______ address must be consulted.
a) IP
b) MAC
c) Port
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: IP address lets you know where the network is located. Whereas MAC address is a unique address for every device. Port address identifies a process or service you want to carry on.

 

10. Which is a time-sensitive service?
a) File transfer
b) File download
c) E-mail
d) Internet telephony
Answer: d
Explanation: Internet telephony is Loss-tolerant other applications are not.

 

11. The ____________ translates internet domain and host names to IP address.
a) domain name system
b) routing information protocol
c) network time protocol
d) internet relay chat
Answer: a
Explanation: Domain name system is the way the internet domain names are stored and translated to IP addresses. The domain names systems matches the name of website to ip addresses of the website.

 

12. Which one of the following allows a user at one site to establish a connection to another site and then pass keystrokes from local host to remote host?
a) HTTP
b) FTP
c) Telnet
d) TCP
Answer: c
Explanation: Telnet is used for accessing remote computers. Using telnet a user can access computer remotely. With Telnet, you can log on as a regular user with whatever privileges you may have been granted to the specific application and data on the computer.

 

13. Application layer protocol defines ____________
a) types of messages exchanged
b) message format, syntax and semantics
c) rules for when and how processes send and respond to messages
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Application layer deals with the user interface, what message is to be sent or the message format, syntax and semantics. A user has access to application layer for sending and receiving messages.

 

14. Which one of the following protocol delivers/stores mail to reciever server?
a) simple mail transfer protocol
b) post office protocol
c) internet mail access protocol
d) hypertext transfer protocol
Answer: a
Explanation: SMTP, abbreviation for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol is an application layer protocol. A client who wishes to send a mail creates a TCP connection to the SMTP server and then sends the mail across the connection.

 

15. The ASCII encoding of binary data is called
a) base 64 encoding
b) base 32 encoding
c) base 16 encoding
d) base 8 encoding
Answer: a
Explanation: Base64 is used commonly in a number of applications including email via MIME, and storing complex data in XML. Problem with sending normal binary data to a network is that bits can be misinterpreted by underlying protocols, produce incorrect data at receiving node and that is why we use this code.

 

16. Which one of the following is an internet standard protocol for managing devices on IP network?
a) dynamic host configuration protocol
b) simple network management protocol
c) internet message access protocol
d) media gateway protocol
Answer: b
Explanation: SNMP is a set of protocols for network management and monitoring. This protocol is included in the application layer. SNMP uses 7 protocol data units.

 

17. Which one of the following is not an application layer protocol?
a) media gateway protocol
b) dynamic host configuration protocol
c) resource reservation protocol
d) session initiation protocol
Answer: c
Explanation: Resource reservation protocol is used in transport layer. It is designed to reserve resources across a network for quality of service using the integrated services model.

 

18. Which protocol is a signaling communication protocol used for controlling multimedia communication sessions?
a) session initiation protocol
b) session modelling protocol
c) session maintenance protocol
d) resource reservation protocol
Answer: a
Explanation: SIP is a signaling protocol in which its function includes initiating, maintaining and terminating real time sessions. SIP is used for signaling and controlling multimedia sessions.

 

19. Which one of the following is not correct?
a) Application layer protocols are used by both source and destination devices during a communication session
b) HTTP is a session layer protocol
c) TCP is an application layer protocol
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: HTTP is an application layer protocol. Whereas TCP is a transport layer protocol.

 

20. When displaying a web page, the application layer uses the _____________
a) HTTP protocol
b) FTP protocol
c) SMTP protocol
d) TCP protocol
Answer: a
Explanation: HTTP is abbreviation for hypertext transfer protocol. It is the foundation of data communication for world wide web. This protocol decides how the message is formatted and transmitted etc.

 

21. The number of objects in a Web page which consists of 4 jpeg images and HTML text is ________
a) 4
b) 1
c) 5
d) 7
Answer: c
Explanation: 4 jpeg images + 1 base HTML file.

 

22. The default connection type used by HTTP is _________
a) Persistent
b) Non-persistent
c) Can be either persistent or non-persistent depending on connection request
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: By default the http connection is issued with persistent connection. In persistent connection server leaves connection open after sending response. As little as one RTT (Time for a small packet to travel from client to server and back) is required for all referenced objects.

 

23. The time taken by a packet to travel from client to server and then back to the client is called __________
a) STT
b) RTT
c) PTT
d) JTT
Answer: b
Explanation: RTT stands for round-trip time.

 

24. The HTTP request message is sent in _________ part of three-way handshake.
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
Answer: c
Explanation: In first step client sends a segment to establish a connection with the server. In the second the step the client waits for the acknowledgement to be received from the server. After receiving the acknowledgement, the client sends actual data in the third step.

 

25. In the process of fetching a web page from a server the HTTP request/response takes __________ RTTs.
a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 3
Answer: b
Explanation: By default the http connection will be persistent connection. Hence it will take only 1 RTT to fetch a webpage from a server.

 

26. The first line of HTTP request message is called _____________
a) Request line
b) Header line
c) Status line
d) Entity line
Answer: a
Explanation: The line followed by request line are called header lines and status line is the initial part of response message.

 

 

27. The values GET, POST, HEAD etc are specified in ____________ of HTTP message
a) Request line
b) Header line
c) Status line
d) Entity body
Answer: a
Explanation: It is specified in the method field of request line in the HTTP request message.

 

28. The __________ method when used in the method field, leaves entity body empty.
a) POST
b) SEND
c) GET
d) PUT
Answer: c
Explanation: There are two methods which help to request a response from a server. Those are GET and POST. In GET method, the client requests data from server. In POST method the client submits data to be processed to the server.

 

29. The HTTP response message leaves out the requested object when ____________ method is used
a) GET
b) POST
c) HEAD
d) PUT
Answer: c
Explanation: HEAD method is much faster than GET method. In HEAD method much smaller amount of data is transferred. The HEAD method asks only for information about a document and not for the document itself.

 

30. Find the oddly matched HTTP status codes
a) 200 OK
b) 400 Bad Request
c) 301 Moved permanently
d) 304 Not Found
Answer: d
Explanation: 404 Not Found.

 

31. Multiple objects can be sent over a TCP connection between client and server in a persistent HTTP connection.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Persistent connections are kept active after completing transaction so that multiple objects can be sent over the same TCP connection.

 

32. HTTP is ________ protocol.
a) application layer
b) transport layer
c) network layer
d) data link layer
Answer: a
Explanation: HTTP is an Application layer protocol used to define how messages are formatted and transmitted through the World Wide Web.

 

33. In the network HTTP resources are located by
a) uniform resource identifier
b) unique resource locator
c) unique resource identifier
d) union resource locator
Answer: a
Explanation: The Uniform Resource Identifier is a name and locator for the resource to be located by the HTTP. The URLs and URNs are derived through the identifier.

 

34. HTTP client requests by establishing a __________ connection to a particular port on the server.
a) user datagram protocol
b) transmission control protocol
c) border gateway protocol
d) domain host control protocol
Answer: b
Explanation: HTTP clients perform requests using a TCP connection, because the TCP connection provides a more reliable service. UDP is not a reliable protocol, border gateway protocol is used on top of TCP, while domain host control protocol is a network layer protocol.

 

35. In HTTP pipelining ________________
a) multiple HTTP requests are sent on a single TCP connection without waiting for the corresponding responses
b) multiple HTTP requests can not be sent on a single TCP connection
c) multiple HTTP requests are sent in a queue on a single TCP connection
d) multiple HTTP requests are sent at random on a single TCP connection
Answer: a
Explanation: HTTP pipelining helps the client make multiple requests without having to waiting for each response, thus saving a lot of time and bandwidth for the client.

 

36. FTP server listens for connection on port number ____________
a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23
Answer: b
Explanation: Port 20 is used for FTP data. Port 22 is used for SSH remote login. Port 23 is used for TELNET.

 

37. In FTP protocol, client contacts server using ____ as the transport protocol.
a) transmission control protocol
b) user datagram protocol
c) datagram congestion control protocol
d) stream control transmission protocol
Answer: a
Explanation: The clients use the Transmission Control Protocol for FTP as it’s more reliable than UDP, DCCP, and SCTP, and reliability of file transfer is required to be as high as possible for FTP.

 

38. In Active mode FTP, the client initiates both the control and data connections.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: In Passive mode of FTP, the client initiates both data and control connections, while in Active mode, the client initiates the control connection and then the server initiates the data connection.

 

39. The File Transfer Protocol is built on ______________
a) data centric architecture
b) service oriented architecture
c) client server architecture
d) connection oriented architecture
Answer: c
Explanation: The FTP connection includes a Server and a Client which wish to share files. The server can have multiple clients at the same time while the client communicates with only one server at a time.

 

40. In File Transfer Protocol, data transfer cannot be done in ___________
a) stream mode
b) block mode
c) compressed mode
d) message mode
Answer: d
Explanation: In Stream mode, the data is transferred in a continuous stream. In Block mode, data is transferred after being divided into smaller blocks. In Compressed mode, data is transferred after being compressed using some compression algorithm.

 

41. When the mail server sends mail to other mail servers it becomes ____________
a) SMTP server
b) SMTP client
c) Peer
d) Master
Answer: b
Explanation: SMTP clients are the entities that send mails to other mail servers. The SMTP servers cannot send independent mails to other SMTP servers as an SMTP server. There are no masters or peers in SMTP as it is based on the client-server architecture.

 

42. If you have to send multimedia data over SMTP it has to be encoded into _______
a) Binary
b) Signal
c) ASCII
d) Hash
Answer: c
Explanation: Since only 7-bit ASCII codes are transmitted through SMTP, it is mandatory to convert binary multimedia data to 7-bit ASCII before it is sent using SMTP.

 

43. Expansion of SMTP is ________
b) Simple Message Transfer Protocol
c) Simple Mail Transmission Protocol
d) Simple Message Transmission Protocol
Answer: a
Explanation: SMTP or Simple Mail Transfer Protocol is an application layer protocol used to transport e-mails over the Internet. Only 7-bit ASCII codes can be sent using SMTP.

 

44. In SMTP, the command to write receiver’s mail address is written with the command _______
a) SEND TO
b) RCPT TO
c) MAIL TO
d) RCVR TO
Answer: b
Explanation: RCPT TO command is followed by the recipient’s mail address to specify where or to whom the mail is going to through the internet. If there is more than one receiver, the command is repeated for each address continually.

 

45. The underlying Transport layer protocol used by SMTP is ________
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) Either TCP or UDP
d) IMAP
Answer: a
Explanation: TCP is a reliable protocol, and Reliability is a mandatory requirement in e-mail transmission using SMTP.

 

46. Choose the statement which is wrong in case of SMTP?
a) It requires message to be in 7bit ASCII format
b) It is a pull protocol
c) It transfers files from one mail server to another mail server
d) SMTP is responsible for the transmission of the mail through the internet
Answer: b
Explanation: In SMTP, the sending mail server pushes the mail to receiving mail server hence it is push protocol. In a pull protocol such as HTTP, the receiver pulls the resource from the sending server.

 

 

47. Internet mail places each object in _________
a) Separate messages for each object
b) One message
c) Varies with number of objects
d) Multiple messages for each object
Answer: b
Explanation: It places all objects into one message as it wouldn’t be efficient enough if there are different messages for each object. The objects include the text and all the multimedia to be sent.

 

48. Typically the TCP port used by SMTP is _________
a) 25
b) 35
c) 50
d) 15
Answer: a
Explanation: The ports 15, 35 and 50 are all UDP ports and SMTP only uses TCP port 25 for reliability.

 

49. A session may include ________
a) Zero or more SMTP transactions
b) Exactly one SMTP transactions
c) Always more than one SMTP transactions
d) Number of SMTP transactions cant be determined
Answer: a
Explanation: An SMTP session consists of SMTP transactions only even if no transactions have been performed. But no transactions in the session might mean that the session is inactive or is just initiated.

 

50. Which of the following is an example of user agents for e-mail?
a) Microsoft Outlook
b) Facebook
c) Google
d) Tumblr
Answer: a
Explanation: Among the options, only Microsoft Outlook is an e-mail agent. Google is a search engine and Facebook, and Tumblr are social networking platforms. Gmail and Alpine are some other examples of e-mail agent.

 

51. The entire hostname has a maximum of ___________
a) 255 characters
b) 127 characters
c) 63 characters
d) 31 characters
Answer: a
Explanation: An entire hostname can have a maximum of 255 characters. Although each label must be from 1 to 63 characters long. Host name is actually a label that is given to a device in a network.

 

52. A DNS client is called _________
a) DNS updater
b) DNS resolver
c) DNS handler
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: DNS client also known as DNS resolver also known as DNS lookup helps to resolve DNS requests using an external DNS server.

 

53. Servers handle requests for other domains _______
a) directly
b) by contacting remote DNS server
c) it is not possible
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Whenever a request is received at server from other domains, it handles this situation by contacting remote DNS server.

 

54. DNS database contains _______
a) name server records
b) hostname-to-address records
c) hostname aliases
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Domain Name system not only deals with mapping IP addresses with the hostname but also deals with exchange of information in the server.

 

55. If a server has no clue about where to find the address for a hostname then _______
a) server asks to the root server
b) server asks to its adjcent server
c) request is not processed
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Root name servers are actually very important and critical as they are the first step in translating human readable hostnames into IP addresses for carrying out communication.

 

56. Which one of the following allows client to update their DNS entry as their IP address change?
a) dynamic DNS
b) mail transfer agent
c) authoritative name server
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Dynamic DNS or in short DDNS or DynDNS helps in automatically updating a name server in the DNS. This does not require manual editing.

 

57. Wildcard domain names start with label _______
a) @
b) *
c) &
d) #
Answer: b
Explanation: A wildcard DNS record matches requests to a non existent domain name. This wildcard DNS record is specified by using asterisk “*” as the starting of a domain name.

 

58. The right to use a domain name is delegated by domain name registers which are accredited by _______
a) internet architecture board
b) internet society
c) internet research task force
d) internet corporation for assigned names and numbers
Answer: d
Explanation: The ICANN (Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers) deals with IP address space allocation, protocol identifier assignment, generic and country code Top Level domain name system management (gTLD and ccTLD).

 

59. The domain name system is maintained by _______
a) distributed database system
b) a single server
c) a single computer
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: A domain name system is maintained by a distributed database system. It is a collection of multiple, logically interrelated databases distributed over a computer network.

 

60. Which one of the following is not true?
a) multiple hostnames may correspond to a single IP address
b) a single hostname may correspond to many IP addresses
c) a single hostname may correspond to a single IP address
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: It need not be that a single hostname will correspond to a ip address. For example facebook.com and fb.com both correspond to same ip address. So there can be multiple hostnames for a single ip address

 

61. DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol) provides __________ to the client.
a) IP address
b) MAC address
c) Url
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: We use DHCP to allow the hosts to acquire their ip addresses dynamically which is better than visiting each and every host on the network and configure all of this information manually.

 

62. DHCP is used for ________
a) IPv6
b) IPv4
c) Both IPv6 and IPv4
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: DHCP is used for both IPv4 and IPv6 addressing. With DHCP you get to let the hosts know about the change dynamically, and hosts update their info themselves.

 

63. The DHCP server _________
a) maintains a database of available IP addresses
b) maintains the information about client configuration parameters
c) grants a IP address when receives a request from a client
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Whenever a DHCP server gets a request from a client it responds with a DHCP offer containing IP address being offered, network mask offered, the amount of time that the client can use and keep it, the ip address of the DHCP server making this offer.

 

64. IP assigned for a client by DHCP server is
a) for a limited period
b) for an unlimited period
c) not time dependent
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The IP address offered to a client is only for a limited period of time. There is actually a certain amount of time that the client can use and keep this IP address.

 

65. DHCP uses UDP port _________ for sending data to the server.
a) 66
b) 67
c) 68
d) 69
Answer: b
Explanation: 67 is the UDP port number that is used as the destination port of a server. Whereas UDP port number 68 is used by the client.

 

66. The DHCP server can provide the _______ of the IP addresses.
a) dynamic allocation
b) automatic allocation
c) static allocation
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: When a host acquires multiple offers of IP addresses from different DHCP servers, the host will broadcast a dhcp request identifying the server whose offer has been accepted.

 

67. DHCP client and servers on the same subnet communicate via _________
a) UDP broadcast
b) UDP unicast
c) TCP broadcast
d) TCP unicast
Answer: a
Explanation: DHCP actually employs a connectionless service, which is provided by UDP, since TCP is connection oriented. It is implemented with two UDP port numbers 67 and 68 for its operations.

 

68. After obtaining the IP address, to prevent the IP conflict the client may use _________
a) internet relay chat
b) broader gateway protocol
c) address resolution protocol
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: ARP abbreviation for address resolution protocol is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses that are present in the local network.

 

69. What is DHCP snooping?
a) techniques applied to ensure the security of an existing DHCP infrastructure
b) encryption of the DHCP server requests
c) algorithm for DHCP
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: DHCP snooping is a security feature that is used in OS of a network in the layer 2. This technology prevents unauthorized DHCP servers offering IP addresses to DHCP clients.

 

70. If DHCP snooping is configured on a LAN switch, then clients having specific ______ can access the network.
a) MAC address
b) IP address
c) Both MAC address and IP address
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The DHCP snooping is done to prevent unauthorized IP addresses being offered by unauthorized servers. This features allows only specific mac addresses and IP addresses to access the network.

 

71. The application-level protocol in which a few manager stations control a set of agents is called ______
a) HTML
b) TCP
c) SNMP
d) SNMP/IP
Answer: c
Explanation: SNMP stands for Simple Network Management Protocol. It is an application-level protocol in which a few manager stations control a set of agents. It is used under the TCP/IP protocol suite and is used for managing devices on the internet.

 

72. Full duplex mode increases the capacity of each domain by ________
a) 10 to 20 mbps
b) 20 to 30 mbps
c) 30 to 40 mbps
d) 40 to 50 mbps
Answer: a
Explanation: In full duplex mode, both endpoints share a single channel bandwidth to achieve two-way transmission. This results in complete utilization of the band capacity increasing the capacity by 10 to 20 mbps than half-duplex mode.

 

73. Configuration management can be divided into which two subsystems?
a) Reconfiguration and documentation
b) Management and configuration
c) Documentation and dialing up
d) Configuration and dialing up
Answer: a
Explanation: The best current practices report is created by a management group to ensure the most effective configuration management. The group also makes a MIB (Management Information Base) module to help with the configuration management.

 

74. To use a Simple Network Management System, we need _______
a) Servers
b) IP
c) Protocols
d) Rules
Answer: d
Explanation: Rules are a collection of expression containing parameters to observe the attributes of the user’s device, and then execute some actions. It specifies the parameters for the managed objects inside the application and performs operations that would support the expression. The input of a rule may be many expressions or even a single expression that end in an output of single object invoking some action.

 

75. The main difference between SNMPv3 and SNMPv2 is _______
a) Management
b) Integration
c) Classification
d) Enhanced security
Answer: d
Explanation: SNMPv3 has introduced new cryptographic security, through which confidentiality is provided by encrypting packets and blocking intruders. It also ensures that the message is coming from a reliable source.

 

76. In Network Management System, the division that is responsible for controlling access to network based on a predefined policy is called _________
a) Fault Management
b) Secured Management
c) Active Management
d) Security Management
Answer: d
Explanation: Security management is also responsible to provide confidentiality, authentication and encryption in addition to controlling access to network. Without security management, the network and its traffic would be vulnerable to be exploited by attackers.

 

77. BER stands for ________
a) Basic Encoding Rules
b) Basic Encoding Resolver
c) Basic Encoding Rotator
d) Basic Encoding Router
Answer: a
Explanation: The Basic Encoding Rules are a set of rules that specify the guidelines to encode the SNMP messages in binary form. Each SNMP message is encoded into 3 parts namely data, length and type of message.

 

78. Control of the users’ access to network resources through charges is the main responsibility of ________
a) Reactive Fault Management
b) Reconfigured Fault Management
c) Accounting Management
d) Security Management
Answer: c
Explanation: The accounting management keeps track of the users and their access rights to the network and controls the user’s access by communicating with the security management. The accounting management takes support of the Management Information Block to perform its operations.

 

79. SNMP is the framework for managing devices in an internet using the ______
a) TCP/IP protocol
b) UDP
c) SMTP
d) None
Answer: a
Explanation: SNMP is a management protocol in which a few manager stations control a set of agents using the TCP/IP protocol suite. SNMP stands for Simple Network Management Protocol.

 

80. Structure of Management Information (SMI), is the guideline of ________
a) HTTP
b) SNMP
c) URL
d) MIB
Answer: b
Explanation: SMI was developed by the Storage Networking Industry Association (SNIA) and it defines a standard that can be manipulated by SNMP. Basically, it defines the standard format and hierarchy of management data which is used by the SNMP. It does not describe how the objects are to be managed.

 

81. The application layer protocol used by a Telnet application is ________
a) Telnet
b) FTP
c) HTTP
d) SMTP
Answer: a
Explanation: Telnet is an application layer protocol that provides access to the command-line interface on a remote host. Telnet stands for teletype network.

 

82. Which amongst the following statements is correct for “character at a time” mode?
a) Character processing is done on the local system under the control of the remote system
b) Most text typed is immediately sent to the remote host for processing
c) All text is echoed locally, only completed lines are sent to the remote host
d) All text is processed locally, and only confirmed lines are sent to the remote host
Answer: b
Explanation: In character at a time mode, the typed text is sent immediately to the remote host while the user is typing. Another mode used in Telnet is “Old line by line” mode in which only completed lines are sent to the remote host.

 

83. _______ allows you to connect and login to a remote computer
a) Telnet
b) FTP
c) HTTP
d) SMTP
Answer: a
Explanation: Telnet provides access to the command-line interface on a remote computer. One can login to the computer from the command-line interface.

 

84. Telnet is used for _______
a) Television on net
b) Network of Telephones
c) Remote Login
d) Teleshopping site
Answer: c
Explanation: Telnet is an application layer protocol that provides access to the command line interface of a remote computer that can be used to perform remote login.

 

85. Which one of the following is not correct?
a) telnet is a general purpose client-server program
b) telnet lets user access an application on a remote computer
c) telnet can also be used for file transfer
d) telnet can be used for remote login
Answer: c
Explanation: File Transfer Protocol is used for file transfer. Telnet provides access to the command-line interface on a remote host.

 

86. Which operating mode of telnet is full duplex?
a) default mode
b) server mode
c) line mode
d) character mode
Answer: c
Explanation: In line mode, terminal character processing is done on the client side but editing is enabled on the server side. Line mode reduces the number of packets and is useful for long delay networks.

 

87. If we want that a character be interpreted by the client instead of server _________
a) interpret as command (IAC) escape character has to be used
b) control functions has to be disabled
c) it is not possible
d) cli character has to be used
Answer: a
Explanation: The client must look at each byte that arrives and look for IAC escape character. If IAC is found, the client moves on to look for any other code or IAC. If the next byte is IAC – a single byte is presented by the client to the