1. Which of the following term describes testing?
a) Finding broken code
b) Evaluating deliverable to find errors
c) A stage of all projects
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Software testing is the process of evaluation a software item to detect differences between given input and expected output.
2. What is Cyclomatic complexity?
a) Black box testing
b) White box testing
c) Yellow box testing
d) Green box testing
Answer: b
Explanation: Cyclomatic complexity measures the amount of decision logic in the program module.Cyclomatic complexity gives the minimum number of paths that can generate all possible paths through the module.
3. Lower and upper limits are present in which chart?
a) Run chart
b) Bar chart
c) Control chart
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: A run chart is used to monitor the behavior of a variable over time for a process or system. Run charts graphically display cycles, trends, shifts, or non-random patterns in behavior over time. It contains lower and upper limits.
4. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?
a) Retesting
b) Sanity testing
c) Breadth test and depth test
d) Confirmation testing
Answer: c
Explanation: Maintenance Testing is done on the already deployed software. The deployed software needs to be enhanced, changed or migrated to other hardware. The Testing done during this enhancement, change and migration cycle is known as maintenance testing.
5. White Box techniques are also classified as
a) Design based testing
b) Structural testing
c) Error guessing technique
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The structural testing is the testing of the structure of the system or component. Structural testing is often referred to as ‘white box’ or ‘glass box’ or ‘clear-box testing’ because in structural testing we are interested in what is happening ‘inside the system/application’.
6. Exhaustive testing is
a) always possible
b) practically possible
c) impractical but possible
d) impractical and impossible
Answer: c
Explanation: Exhaustive testing is the testing where we execute single test case for multiple test data.It means if we are using single test case for different product or module under manual testing.
testing .
7. Which of the following is/are White box technique?
a) Statement Testing
b) Decision Testing
c) Condition Coverage
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Statement testing, decision testing, condition coverage all of them uses white box technique.
8. What are the various Testing Levels?
a) Unit Testing
b) System Testing
c) Integration Testing
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Unit, system, integration testing all of them are levels in testing.
9. Boundary value analysis belong to?
a) White Box Testing
b) Black Box Testing
c) White Box & Black Box Testing
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Boundary value analysis is based on testing at the boundaries between partitions and checks the output with expected output.
10. Alpha testing is done at
a) Developer’s end
b) User’s end
c) Developer’s & User’s end
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Alpha testing takes place at the developer’s end. Developers observe the users and note problems. Alpha testing is testing of an application when development is about to complete. Minor design changes can still be made as a result of alpha testing.
11. The testing in which code is checked
a) Black box testing
b) White box testing
c) Red box testing
d) Green box testing
Answer: b
Explanation: White-box testing is a method of testing software that tests internal structures or workings of an application, as opposed to its functionality .
12. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called
a) Unit testing
b) Regression testing
c) Adhoc testing
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Adhoc testing is used term for software testing performed without planning and documentation. The tests are intended to be run only once, unless a defect is discovered.
13. Acceptance testing is also known as
a) Grey box testing
b) White box testing
c) Alpha Testing
d) Beta testing
Answer: d
Explanation: Acceptance testing is a test conducted to determine if the requirements of a specification or contract are met and is done by users.
14. Which of the following is non-functional testing?
a) Black box testing
b) Performance testing
c) Unit testing
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Performance testing is in general testing performed to determine how a system performs in terms of responsiveness and stability under a particular workload.
15. Beta testing is done at
a) User’s end
b) Developer’s end
c) User’s & Developer’s end
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: In beta testing the user evaluates the product and gives his feedback.
16. SPICE stands for
a) Software Process Improvement and Compatibility Determination
b) Software Process Improvement and Control Determination
c) Software Process Improvement and Capability Determination
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: SPICE stands for Software Process Improvement and Control Determination.
17. Unit testing is done by
a) Users
b) Developers
c) Customers
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Unit testing is a method by which individual units of source code, sets of one or more computer program modules together with associated control data, usage procedures, and operating procedures are tested to determine if they are fit for use.
18. Behavioral testing is
a) White box testing
b) Black box testing
c) Grey box testing
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Black-box testing is a method of software testing that examines the functionality of an application without peering into its internal structures or workings.
19. Which of the following is black box testing
a) Basic path testing
b) Boundary value analysis
c) Code path analysis
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Boundary value analysis is a software testing technique in which tests are designed to include representatives of boundary values.
20. Which of the following is not used in measuring the size of the software
a) KLOC
b) Function Points
c) Size of module
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: KLOC and function points both can be used as size measurement for measuring the size of the software.
21. Software Debugging is a set of activities that can be planned in advance and conducted systematically.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Software Testing is a set of such activities.
22. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?
a) Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time
b) Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group
c) Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing strategy
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
23. ITG stands for
a) instantaneous test group
b) integration testing group
c) individual testing group
d) independent test group
Answer: d
Explanation: The role of an independent test group (ITG) is to remove the inherent problems
associated with letting the builder test the thing that has been built.
24. By collecting ________ during software testing, it is possible to develop meaningful guidelines to halt the testing process.
a) Failure intensity
b) Testing time
c) Metrics
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: It answers questions like: “When are we done with testing?”.
25. Which of the following issues must be addressed if a successful software testing strategy is to be implemented?
a) Use effective formal technical reviews as a filter prior to testing
b) Develop a testing plan that emphasizes “rapid cycle testing.”
c) State testing objectives explicitly
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned options are carried out for the purpose.
26. Test cases should uncover errors like
a) Nonexistent loop termination
b) Comparison of different data types
c) Incorrect logical operators or precedence
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Test cases should uncover errors such as all the explained options and much more.
27. Which of the following errors should not be tested when error handling is evaluated?
a) Error description is unintelligible
b) Error noted does not correspond to error encountered
c) Error condition causes system intervention prior to error handling
d) Error description provide enough information to assist in the location of the cause of the error
Answer: a
Explanation: Actually, error description does not provide enough information to assist in the location of the cause of the error.
28. What is normally considered as an adjunct to the coding step
a) Integration testing
b) Unit testing
c) Completion of Testing
d) Regression Testing
Answer: b
Explanation: After source level code has been developed, reviewed, and verified for correspondence to component level design, unit test case design begins.
29. Which of the following is not regression test case?
a) A representative sample of tests that will exercise all software functions
b) Additional tests that focus on software functions that are likely to be affected by the change
c) Tests that focus on the software components that have been changed
d) Low-level components are combined into clusters that perform a specific software sub-function
Answer: d
Explanation: Regression testing may be conducted manually, by re-executing a subset of all test cases or using automated capture or playback tools
30. Which testing is an integration testing approach that is commonly used when “shrink-wrapped” software products are being developed?
a) Regression Testing
b) Integration testing
c) Smoke testing
d) Validation testing
Answer: c
Explanation: Smoke testing is designed as a pacing mechanism for time-critical projects, allowing the software team to assess its project on a frequent basis.
31. The architecture of object-oriented software results in a series of layered subsystems that encapsulate collaborating classes.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: It is necessary to test an OO system at a variety of different levels in an effort to uncover errors that may occur as classes collaborate with one another and subsystems communicate across architectural layers.
32.The construction of object-oriented software begins with the creation of
a) design model
b) analysis model
c) code levels
d) both design and analysis model
Answer: d
Explanation: It is due to the evolutionary nature of the OO software engineering paradigm, these models begin as relatively informal representations of system requirements and evolve into detailed models of classes, class connections and relationships, system design and allocation, and object design.
33. Which testing integrates the set of classes required to respond to one input or event for the system?
a) cluster testing
b) thread-based testing
c) use-based testing
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Each thread is integrated and tested individually. Regression testing is applied to ensure that no side effects occur.
34. Which of the following is one of the steps in the integration testing of OO software?
a) cluster testing
b) thread-based testing
c) use-based testing
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Here, a cluster of collaborating classes is exercised by designing test cases that attempt to uncover errors in the collaborations.
35. __________ methods can be used to drive validations tests
a) Yellow-box testing
b) Black-box testing
c) White-box testing
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Black-box testing methods are as appropriate for OO systems as they are for systems developed using conventional software engineering methods.
36. Which of the following is a part of testing OO code?
a) Validation tests
b) Integration tests
c) Class tests
d) System tests
Answer: c
37. The object of ___________within an OO system is to design tests that have a high likelihood of uncovering plausible bugs.
a) Fault-based testing
b) Integration testing
c) Use-based testing
d) Scenario-based testing
Answer: a
Explanation: The object of fault-based testing within an OO system is to design tests that have a high likelihood of uncovering plausible faults.
38. What refers to the externally observable structure of an OO program?
a) Deep structure
b) Surface structure
c) Core structure
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Surface structure refers to the externally observable structure of an OO program which is immediately obvious to an end-user.
39. _____________ categorizes class operations based on the generic function that each performs.
a) Category-based partitioning
b) Attribute-based partitioning
c) State-based partitioning
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: For example, operations in the account class can be categorized in initialization operations (open, setup), computational operations (deposit,withdraw) etc.
40. Which of the following is black-box oriented and can be accomplished by applying the same black-box methods discussed for conventional software?
a) Conventional testing
b) OO system validation testing
c) Test case design
d) Both Conventional testing and OO system validation testing
Answer: d
41. Standard Enforcer is a
a) Static Testing Tool
b) Dynamic Testing
c) Static & Dynamic Testing
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Static Testing tools are those that perform analysis of the the program without executing them at all.
42. Many applications using static analysis find 0.1-0.2% NCSS. NCSS stands for
a) Non-Code Source Statement
b) Non Comment Source Sentence
c) Non-Comment Source Statement
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
43. Which testing tool does a simple job of enforcing standards in a uniform way of many programs?
a) Static Analyzer
b) Code Inspector
c) Standard Enforcer
d) Both Code Inspector & Standard Enforcer
Answer: d
Explanation: A standard enforcer is just like a code inspector, except that the rules are generally simpler. Standard enforcer looks at only single statements while the static analyzer looks at whole programs.
44. Software Testing with real data in real environment is known as
a) alpha testing
b) beta testing
c) regression testing
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Beta testing is the last stage of testing, and normally can involve sending the product to beta test sites outside the company for real-world exposure or offering the product for a free trial download over the Internet.
45. Which of the following testing tools examine program systematically & automatically ?
a) Code Inspector
b) Static Analyzer
c) Standard Enforcer
d) Coverage Analyzer
Answer: b
Explanation: A static analyzer operates from a pre-computed database o descriptive information derived from the source text of the program.
46. Which testing tool is responsible for documenting programs ?
a) Test/File Generator
b) Test Harness System
c) Test Archiving Systems
d) Coverage Analyzer
Answer: c
Explanation: The answer is self-explanatory.
47. Beta Testing is done by
a) Developers
b) Testers
c) Users
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
48. Standard enforcer tool looks at the whole program.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: This tool looks at only single statements.
49. Debugging Program is a program which runs concurrently with the program under test & provide commands to
a) examine memory & registers
b) stop execution at a particular point
c) search for references for particular variables, constant and registers
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Debugging is a methodical process of finding and reducing the number of bugs, or defects, in a computer program or a piece of electronic hardware, thus making it behave as expected.
50. Execution Verifier is a dynamic tool that is also known as
a) Test File Generator
b) Coverage Analyzer
c) Output Comparator
d) Test Harness System
Answer: b
51. Quality Management in software engineering is also known as
a) SQA
b) SQM
c) SQI
d) SQA and SQM
Answer: a
Explanation: Quality Management is also called software quality assurance (SQA) which serves as an umbrella activity that is applied throughout the software process.
52. Quality also can be looked at in terms of user satisfaction which includes
a) A compliant product
b) Good quality output
c) Delivery within budget and schedule
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: This focuses on how well the implementation follows the design and how well the resulting system meets its requirements .
53. Inspections and testing are what kinds of Quality Costs?
a) Prevention
b) Internal Failure
c) External Failure
d) Appraisal
Answer: d
Explanation: Inspections, equipment calibration, maintenance and testing appraisal costs is quality management.
54. According to Pareto’s principle, x% of defects can be traced to y% of all causes. What are the values of x and y?
a) 60, 40
b) 70, 30
c) 80, 20
d) No such principle exists
Answer: c
Explanation: The Pareto principle (also known as the 80–20 rule) states that, for many events, roughly 80% of the effects come from 20% of the causes.
55. What is Six Sigma?
a) It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality assurance
b) The “Six Sigma” refers to six standard deviations
c) It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality assurance AND The “Six Sigma” refers to six standard deviations
d) A Formal Technical Review(FTR) guideline for quality walkthrough or inspection
Answer: c
Explanation: The Six Sigma uses data and statistical analysis to measure and improve a company’s operational performance .
56. Which of the following is not a core step of Six Sigma?
a) Define
b) Control
c) Measure
d) Analyse
Answer: b
Explanation: It is an additional step added for existing processes and can be done in parallel.
57. Non-conformance to software requirements is known as
a) Software availability
b) Software reliability
c) Software failure
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Given a set of valid requirements, all software failures can be traced to design or implementation problems.
58. Software safety is equivalent to software reliability.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Software reliability uses statistical analysis to determine the likelihood that a software failure will occur; however, the failure may not necessarily result in a hazard or mishap.
59. Misinterpretation of customer communication is a sample of possible cause defects.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Translation gap between the client and the developer often leads to software defects.
60. What kind of quality cost is incurred when an error is detected in a product prior to shipment?
a) Prevention
b) Internal Failure
c) External Failure
d) Appraisal
Answer: b
Explanation: This includes rework, repair, and failure mode analysis.
61. In reverse engineering process, what refers to the sophistication of the design information that can be extracted from the source code?
a) interactivity
b) completeness
c) abstraction level
d) direction level
Answer: c
62. In reverse engineering, what refers to the level of detail that is provided at an abstraction level?
a) interactivity
b) completeness
c) abstraction level
d) directionality
Answer: b
63. The core of reverse engineering is an activity called
a) restructure code
b) directionality
c) extract abstractions
d) interactivity
Answer: c
Explanation: The engineer must evaluate the old program and extract a meaningful specification of the processing that is performed, the user interface that is applied, and the program data structures or database that is used.
64. What have become de rigueur for computer-based products and systems of every type?
a) GUIs
b) Candidate keys
c) Object model
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Therefore, the redevelopment of user interfaces has become one of the most common types of re-engineering activity. But before a user interface can be rebuilt, reverse engineering should occur.
65. Forward engineering is also known as
a) extract abstractions
b) renovation
c) reclamation
d) both renovation and reclamation
Answer: d
Explanation: Forward engineering, also called renovation or reclamation , not only recovers design information from existing software, but uses this information to alter or reconstitute the existing system in an effort to improve its overall quality.
66. Reverse engineering is the process of deriving the system design and specification from its
a) GUI
b) Database
c) Source code
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None
67. Reverse engineering techniques for internal program data focus on the definition of classes of objects.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: This is accomplished by examining the program code with the intent of grouping related program variables.
68. Which of the following steps may not be used to define the existing data model as a precursor to re-engineering a new database model:
a) Build an initial object model
b) Determine candidate keys
c) Refine the tentative classes
d) Discover user interfaces
Answer: d
Explanation: Once information defined in the preceding steps is known, a series of transformations can be applied to map the old database structure into a new database structure.
69. Much of the information necessary to create a behavioral model can be obtained by observing the external manifestation of the existing
a) candidate keys
b) interface
c) database structure
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The GUI or the interface provides the base for the behavioral model.
70. Extracting data items and objects, to get information on data flow, and to understand the existing data structures that have been implemented is sometimes called
a) data analysis
b) directionality
c) data extraction
d) client applications
Answer: a
71. The degree to which the design specifications are followed during manufacturing is known as
a) Quality of design
b) Quality of conformance
c) Quality of testing
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: This focuses on how well the implementation follows the design and how well the resulting system meets its requirements.
72. Quality of design encompasses requirements and specifications of the system.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The characteristic that designers specify for an item are cover in quality of design.
73. According to ISO 9001, inspection and testing comes under which management responsibility?
a) Process control
b) Document control
c) Control of nonconforming products
d) Servicing
Answer: a
74. In which of the following testing strategies, a smallest testable unit is the encapsulated class or object?
a) Unit testing
b) Integration testing
c) System testing
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
75. Which of the following testing types is not a part of system testing?
a) Recovery testing
b) Stress testing
c) System testing
d) Random testing
Answer: d
Explanation: It is a testing method at class level.
76. In which testing level the focus is on customer usage?
a) Alpha Testing
b) Beta Testing
c) Validation Testing
d) Both Alpha and Beta
Answer: d
Explanation: Alpha testing is done at developer’s end while beta testing is done at user’s end.
77. Validation refers to the set of tasks that ensure that software correctly implements a specific function.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Its verification, while validation refers to a different set of tasks that ensure that the software that has been built is traceable to customer requirements.
78. Reverse engineering and Re-engineering are equivalent processes of software engineering.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Re engineering is a process of analysis and change whereby a system is modified by first reverse engineering and then forward engineering.
79. Transformation of a system from one representational form to another is known as
a) Re-factoring
b) Restructuring
c) Forward engineering
d) Both Re-factoring and Restructuring
Answer: d
80. Which of the following is not an objective of reverse engineering?
a) to reduce maintenance effort
b) to cope with complexity
c) to avoid side effects
d) to assist migration to a CASE environment
Answer: d
Explanation: Reverse engineering helps us to detect side effects rather than avoiding them.
81. What are the problems with re-structuring?
a) Loss of comments
b) Loss of documentation
c) Heavy computational demands
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Restructuring doesn’t help with poor modularisation where related components are dispersed throughout the code.
82. Which of the following is not a module type?
a) Object modules
b) Hardware modules
c) Functional modules
d) Process support modules
Answer: a
Explanation: Except option a all other are module types.
83. Reverse engineering of data focuses on
a) Internal data structures
b) Database structures
c) ALL of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
84. Forward engineering is not necessary if an existing software product is producing the correct output.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Forward engineering refers to taking a high-level model and using it to build a more complex lower-level implementation.
85. Which of the following is not an example of a business process?
a) designing a new product
b) hiring an employee
c) purchasing services
d) testing software
Answer: d
Explanation: It is a part of development phase.
86. Which of the following is a data problem?
a) hardware problem
b) record organisation problems
c) heavy computational demands
d) loss of comments
Answer: b
Explanation: Records representing the same entity may be organised differently in different programs.
87. When does one decides to re-engineer a product?
a) when tools to support restructuring are disabled
b) when system crashes frequently
c) when hardware or software support becomes obsolete
d) subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance
Answer: c
Explanation: Re-engineering involves putting in the effort to make the system easier to maintain.
88. Which of the following is not a business goal of re-engineering ?
a) Cost reduction
b) Time reduction
c) Maintainability
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: No such goal is mentioned which is not a business goal, so option d is correct here.
89. Which of these benefits can be achieved when software is restructured?
a) Higher quality programs
b) Reduced maintenance effort
c) Software easier to test
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
90. Data re-engineering may be part of the process of migrating from a file-based system to a DBMS-based system or changing from one DBMS to another.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Data re-engineering involves analyzing and reorganizing the data structures in a program.
91. BPR stands for
a) Business process re-engineering
b) Business product re-engineering
c) Business process requirements
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
92. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique?
a) Data re-engineering
b) Refactoring
c) Restructuring
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Restructuring involves automatic conversion from unstructured to structured code.
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