1. What all has to be identified as per risk identification?
a) Threats
b) Vulnerabilities
c) Consequences
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Risk identification states what could cause a potential loss.
2. Which one is not a risk management activity?
a) Risk assessment
b) Risk generation
c) Risk control
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management activities would never want a new risk to be generated.
3. What is the product of the probability of incurring a loss due to the risk and the potential magnitude of that loss?
a) Risk exposure
b) Risk prioritization
c) Risk analysis
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
4. What threatens the quality and timeliness of the software to be produced?
a) Known risks
b) Business risks
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks
Answer: d
Explanation: Technical risks identify potential design, implementation, interface, verification, and maintenance problems.
5. What threatens the viability of the software to be built?
a) Known risks
b) Business risks
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks
Answer: b
Explanation: Business risks often jeopardize the project or the product.
6. Which of the following is not a business risk?
a) building an excellent product or system that no one really wants
b) losing the support of senior management due to a change in focus or change in people
c) lack of documented requirements or software scope
d) losing budgetary or personnel commitment
Answer: c
Explanation: This is not considered as a business risk.
7. Which of the following is a systematic attempt to specify threats to the project plan?
a) Risk identification
b) Performance risk
c) Support risk
d) Risk projection
Answer: d
Explanation: By identifying known and predictable risks, the project manager takes a first step toward avoiding them when possible and controlling them when necessary.
8. Which risks are associated with the overall size of the software to be built or modified?
a) Business impact risks
b) Process definition risks
c) Product size risks
d) Development environment risks
Answer: c
9. Which risks are associated with constraints imposed by management or the marketplace?
a) Business impact risks
b) Process definition risks
c) Product size risks
d) Development environment risks
Answer: a
10. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”the degree of uncertainty that the product will meet its requirements and be fit for its intended use.”?
a) Performance risk
b) Cost risk
c) Support risk
d) Schedule risk
Answer: a
11. Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a
a) Client
b) Investor
c) Production team
d) Project manager
Answer: d
Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the project schedule or the quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid these risks.
12. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected?
a) Product risk
b) Project risk
c) Business risk
d) Programming risk
Answer: a
Explanation: Risks that affect the quality or performance of the software being developed.
13. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “There will be a change of organizational management with different priorities.”?
a) Staff turnover
b) Technology change
c) Management change
d) Product competition
Answer: c
14. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “The underlying technology on which the system is built is superseded by new technology.”?
a) Technology change
b) Product competition
c) Requirements change
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Technology changes are common in the competitive environment of software engineering.
15. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the risk?
a) Risk monitoring
b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
d) Risk identification
Answer: a
16. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software is being developed?
a) People risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks
Answer: d
Explanation: These risks are at management level.
17. Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware technologies that are used to develop the system?
a) Managerial risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks
Answer: b
Explanation: The risks associated with technology might affect the product development.
18. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “Derive traceability information to maximize information hiding in the design.”?
a) Underestimated development time
b) Organizational restructuring
c) Requirements changes
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Tracing the requirements can help us understand the risk.
19. Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced?
a) Avoidance strategies
b) Minimization strategies
c) Contingency plans
d) All of the mentione
Answer: b
20. Risk management is now recognized as one of the most important project management tasks.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
21. Which of the following categories is part of the output of software process?
a) computer programs
b) documents that describe the computer programs
c) data
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: None
22. Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control change without seriously impeding justifiable change?
a) Baselines
b) Source code
c) Data model
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: A baseline is analogous to the kitchen doors in the restaurant. Before a software configuration item becomes a baseline, change may be made quickly and informally.
23. Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These include
a) A single software configuration management team for the whole organization
b) A separate configuration management team for each project
c) Software Configuration Management distributed among the project members
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None
24. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration objects that are created during the software process?
a) Change control
b) Version control
c) SCIs
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Configuration management allows a user to specify alternative configurations of the software system through the selection of appropriate versions.
25. What complements the formal technical review by assessing a configuration object for characteristics that are generally not considered during review?
a) Software configuration audit
b) Software configuration management
c) Baseline
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
26. Which of the following is the process of assembling program components, data, and libraries, and then compiling and linking these to create an executable system?
a) System building
b) Release management
c) Change management
d) Version management
Answer: a
27. Which of the following option is not tracked by configuration management tools?
a) Tracking of change proposals
b) Storing versions of system components
c) Tracking the releases of system versions to customers
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All the options are tracked.
28. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?
a) Configuration item identification
b) Risk management
c) Release management
d) Branch management
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management is an entirely different domain.
29. The definition and use of configuration management standards is essential for quality certification in
a) ISO 9000
b) CMM
c) CMMI
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: It is defined in all the mentioned options.
30. What involves preparing software for external release and keeping track of the system versions that have been released for customer use?
a) System building
b) Release management
c) Change management
d) Version management
Answer: b
31. Which of the following process ensures that versions of systems and components are recorded and maintained?
a) Codeline
b) Configuration control
c) Version
d) Workspace
Answer: b
Explanation: In configuration control changes are managed and all versions of components are identified and stored for the lifetime.
32. Which of the following process is concerned with analyzing the costs and benefits of proposed changes?
a) Change management
b) Version management
c) System building
d) Release management
Answer: a
Explanation: It involves approving those changes that are worthwhile, and tracking which components in the system have been changed.
33. Which of the following is not a Version management feature?
a) Version and release identification
b) Build script generation
c) Project support
d) Change history recording
Answer: b
Explanation: All other options are a part of version management.
34. Which method recommends that very frequent system builds should be carried out with automated testing to discover software problems?
a) Agile method
b) Parallel compilation method
c) Large systems method
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: In keeping with the agile methods notion of making many small changes, continuous integration involves rebuilding the mainline frequently, after small source code changes have been made.
35. Which of the following is not a build system feature?
a) Minimal recompilation
b) Documentation generation
c) Storage management
d) Reporting
Answer: c
Explanation: To reduce the storage space required by multiple versions of components that differ only slightly, version management systems usually provide storage management facilities.
36. Which of the following is a collection of component versions that make up a system?
a) Version
b) Codeline
c) Baseline
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Baselines are controlled, which means that the versions of the components making up the system cannot be changed.
37. Which of the following is a configuration item?
a) Design & Test specification
b) Source code
c) Log information
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: A configuration item is an approved and accepted deliverable, changes have to be made through formal procedure.
38. Which of the following is a part of system release?
a) electronic and paper documentation describing the system
b) packaging and associated publicity that have been designed for that release
c) an installation program that is used to help install the system on target hardware
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Release creation is the process of creating the collection of files and documentation that includes all of the components of the system release.
39. A sequence of baselines representing different versions of a system is known as
a) System building
b) Mainline
c) Software Configuration Item(SCI)
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
40. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement “The creation of a new codeline from a version in an existing codeline”?
a) Branching
b) Merging
c) Codeline
d) Mainline
Answer: a
Explanation: The code may then be developed independently.
41. Which of the following is the task of project indicators:
a) help in assessment of status of ongoing project
b) track potential risk
c) help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track potential risk
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
42. Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational performance?
a) Market
b) Product
c) Technology
d) People
Answer: a
Explanation: Market is a collection of competitors, stakeholders, users each having different views on the product. So it does not affect the software quality.
43. The intent of project metrics is:
a) minimization of development schedule
b) for strategic purposes
c) assessing project quality on ongoing basis
d) minimization of development schedule and assessing project quality on ongoing basis
Answer: d
Explanation: A project metric is a quantitative measure of the degree to which a system, component or process possesses an attribute.
44. Which of the following is not a direct measure of SE process?
a) Efficiency
b) Cost
c) Effort Applied
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Efficiency is an indirect measure.
45. Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?
a) Quality
b) Complexity
c) Reliability
d) All of the Mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned options are indirect measures of a product.
46. In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the ___________________
a) number of Functions
b) number of user inputs
c) number of lines of code
d) amount of memory usage
Answer: c
47. Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining function point in FPA ?
a) Number of user Input
b) Number of user Inquiries
c) Number of external Interfaces
d) Number of errors
Answer: d
Explanation: FPA includes five domains namely input, output, inquiries, interface and logical files.
48. Usability can be measured in terms of:
a) Intellectual skill to learn the system
b) Time required to become moderately efficient in system usage
c) Net increase in productivity
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
49. A graphical technique for finding if changes and variation in metrics data are meaningful is known as
a) DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency)
b) Function points analysis
c) Control Chart
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Others options are formulas.
50. Defects removal efficiency (DRE)depends on:
a) E – errors found before software delivery
b) D – defects found after delivery to user
c) Both E and D
d) Varies with project
Answer: c
Explanation: DRE = E / (E + d).
51. Which of the following is not a metric for design model?
a) Interface design metrics
b) Component-level metrics
c) Architectural metrics
d) Complexity metrics
Answer: d
Explanation: Complexity metrics measure the logical complexity of source code.
52. Statement and branch coverage metrics are part of
a) Analysis Model
b) Testing
c) Design Model
d) Source Code
Answer: b
Explanation: These metrics lead to the design of test cases that provide program coverage.
53. Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by
a) Booch
b) Boehm
c) Albrecht
d) Jacobson
Answer: c
Explanation: First proposed by Albrecht in 1979, hundreds of books and papers have been written on functions points since then.
54. How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point Computation?
a) three
b) four
c) five
d) six
Answer: c
Explanation: The five values are: External Inputs, External Outputs, External Inquiries, Internal Logical Files and External Interface Files.
55. Function Point Computation is given by the formula
a) FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)
b) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)].
c) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
d) FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
Answer: b
Explanation: Option b is the correct formula for Function Point Computation.
56. Architectural Design Metrics are ___________ in nature.
a) Black Box
b) White Box
c) Gray Box
d) Green Box
Answer: a
Explanation: They are “black box” in that they do not require any knowledge of the inner workings of a particular software component.
57. Structural complexity of a module i is given as S(i) = f*f (i). What does f symbolizes here?
a) “fan check-out” of module i
b) “fan check-in” of module i
c) “fan in” of module i
d) “fan out” of module i
Answer: d
Explanation: Fan out is number of modules directly invoked by module i.
58. SMI stands for
a) Software Mature Indicator
b) Software Maturity Index
c) Software Mature Index
d) Software Maturity Indicator
Answer: b
59. As the SMI approaches 1.0, the software product starts becoming unstable
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: As the SMI approaches 1.0, the software product begins to stabilize.
60. SMI = [Mt – (Fa + Fc + Fd)]/Mt. Here Mt is the number of modules
a) in the current release
b) in the current release that have been changed
c) from the preceding release that were deleted in the current release
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
61. Size and Complexity are a part of
a) Product Metrics
b) Process Metrics
c) Project Metrics
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Product Metrics describe the characteristics of product.
62. Cost and schedule are a part of
a) Product Metrics
b) Process Metrics
c) Project Metrics
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Project Metrics describe the project characteristics and execution.
63. Number of errors found per person hours expended is an example of a
a) measurement
b) measure
c) metric
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Metric is a quantitative measure of the degree to which a system, component, or process possesses a given attribute.
64. Which of the following is not categorized under Product Operation of McCall’s Software Quality Factors?
a) Flexibility
b) Reliability
c) Usability
d) Integrity
Answer: a
Explanation: Flexibility is a part of Product revision as per McCall’s Software Quality Factors.
65. The arc-to-node ratio is given as r = a/n. What does ‘a’ represent in the ratio?
a) maximum number of nodes at any level
b) longest path from the root to a leaf
c) number of modules
d) lines of control
Answer: d
Explanation: ‘a’ represents the arcs or the lines of control.
66. Which of the following is not categorized under Component-Level Design Metrics?
a) Complexity Metrics
b) Cohesion Metrics
c) Morphology Metrics
d) Coupling Metrics
Answer: c
Explanation: Morphology metrics are a part of High level design metrics.
67. Percentage of modules that were inspected is a part of
a) Product Metrics
b) Process Metrics
c) Project Metrics
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
68. Metric is the act of obtaining a measure.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Measurement is the act of obtaining a measure.
69. MTTC falls the the category of
a) correctness
b) integrity
c) maintainability
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Mean time to change (MTTC) is the time it takes to analyze the change request, design an appropriate modification, implement the change, test it, and distribute the change to all users.
70. Identify the correct option with reference to Software Quality Metrics.
a) Integrity = [Sigma(1 – threat)] * (1 – security)
b) Integrity = [1 – Sigma(threat)] * (1 – security)
c) Integrity = [1 – threat * Sigma(1 – security)].
d) Integrity = Sigma[1 – threat * (1 – security)].
Answer: d
71. Which of the following is not included in failure costs?
a) rework
b) repair
c) failure mode analysis
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Failure costs are those that would disappear if no defects appeared before shipping a product to customers.
72. Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured?
a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Programmers
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Lack of conformance to requirements is lack of quality.
73. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project?
a) evaluations to be performed
b) amount of technical work
c) audits and reviews to be performed
d) documents to be produced by the SQA group
Answer: b
Explanation: All other options support a SQA plan.
74. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the product is called
a) Quality Control
b) Quality of conformance
c) Quality Assurance
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
75. Which of the following is not included in External failure costs?
a) testing
b) help line support
c) warranty work
d) complaint resolution
Answer: a
Explanation: External failure costs are associated with defects found after the product has been shipped to the customer.
76. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA?
a) inter-process inspection
b) maintenance
c) quality planning
d) testing
Answer: c
Explanation: It is associated prevention cost.
77. Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the software?
a) Project manager
b) Project team
c) SQA group
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
78. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find _________ during the process so that they do not become defects after release of the software.
a) errors
b) equivalent faults
c) failure cause
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Errors lead to faults
79. What is not included in prevention costs?
a) quality planning
b) formal technical reviews
c) test equipment
d) equipment calibration and maintenance
Answer: d
Explanation: The cost of quality includes all costs incurred in the pursuit of quality or in performing quality-related activities.
80. Software quality assurance consists of the auditing and reporting functions of management.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
81 .Which of the following is not included in failure costs?
a) rework
b) repair
c) failure mode analysis
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: d
82 . Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured?
a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Programmers
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: b
83. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project?
a) evaluations to be performed
b) amount of technical work
c) audits and reviews to be performed
d) documents to be produced by the SQA group
Ans :b
84. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the product is called
a) Quality Control
b) Quality of conformance
c) Quality Assurance
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: b
85. Which of the following is not included in External failure costs?
a) testing
b) help line support
c) warranty work
d) complaint resolution
Ans : a
86. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA?
a) inter-process inspection
b) maintenance
c) quality planning
d) testing
Ans: c
87. Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the software?
a) Project manager
b) Project team
c) SQA group
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: c
88. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find _________ during the process so that
they do not become defects after release of the software.
a) errors
b) equivalent faults
c) failure cause
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a
89. What is not included in prevention costs?
a) quality planning
b) formal technical reviews
c) test equipment
d) equipment calibration and maintenance
Ans: d
90. Software quality assurance consists of the auditing and reporting functions of management.
a) True
b) False
Ans : a
91. Quality Management in software engineering is also known as
a) SQA
b) SQM
c) SQI
d) SQA and SQM
Ans: a
92. Quality also can be looked at in terms of user satisfaction which includes
a) A compliant product
b) Good quality output
c) Delivery within budget and schedule
d) All of the mentioned
Ans : d
93. Inspections and testing are what kinds of Quality Costs?
a) Prevention
b) Internal Failure
c) External Failure
d) Appraisal
Ans: a
94. What is Six Sigma?
a) It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality assurance
b) The “Six Sigma” refers to six standard deviations
c) It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality assurance AND The “Six Sigma” refers to
six standard deviations
d) A Formal Technical Review(FTR) guideline for quality walkthrough or inspection
Ans: c
95. Which of the following is not a core step of Six Sigma?
a) Define
b) Control
c) Measure
d) Analyse
Ans: b
96. The amount of time that the software is available for use is known as
a) Reliability
b) Usability
c) Efficiency
d) Functionality
Answer: a
97. Usability in metric analysis is defined as the degree to which the software
a) stated needs
b) is easy to use
c) makes optimal use of system resources
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
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