1. When is the power density of the absorbing surface equal to the incident sunlight?
a) Absorbing surface and incident sunlight are perpendicular to each other
b) Absorbing surface and incident sunlight are parallel to each other
c) Absorbing surface and incident sunlight are inclined at an acute angle to each other
d) Absorbing surface and incident sunlight are inclined at an obtuse angle to each other
Answer: d
2. For a fixed receiver, incident power density and received power density are always equal.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
3. What is direct solar radiation?
a) Radiation scattered by molecules
b) Radiation reflected from an obstacle
c) Radiation traveling on a straight line from sun to earth
d) Sum of diffused and reflected radiation energies
Answer: c
4. What is diffused solar radiation?
a) Sum of direct and reflected radiation energies
b) Radiation reflected from an obstacle
c) Radiation traveling on a straight line from sun to earth
d) Radiation scattered by molecules
Answer: d
5. Which of the following is tried to maximized in tilted receivers (panels)?
a) Direct radiation
b) Diffused radiation
c) Reflected radiation
d) Diffracted radiation
Answer: a
6. When receivers (panels) are laid horizontally, they usually collect _______
a) Direct radiation
b) Diffused radiation
c) Deflected radiation
d) Heat
Answer: b
7. More the tilt in receivers (panels), larger amounts of diffused radiation is collected.
a) False
b) True
Answer: a
8. What is reflected solar radiation?
a) Sum of direct and reflected radiation energies
b) Radiation reflected from an atmospheric obstacle
c) Radiation traveling on a straight line from sun to earth
d) Radiation reflected from a non-atmospheric obstacle
Answer: d
9. Reflected solar radiation is used in _______
a) Snowy regions
b) Temperate region
c) Equatorial region
d) Tropical region
Answer: a
10. What is global insolation?
a) Direct radiation + diffused radiation
b) Diffused radiation – direct radiation
c) Direct radiation + diffused radiation + reflected radiation
d) Reflected radiation * direct radiation
Answer: c
11. What is normal radiation?
a) Direct radiation
b) Sun’s radiation and striking surface are perpendicular to each other
c) Incident solar radiation and striking surface are perpendicular to each other
d) Global insolation – direct radiation
Answer: b
12. What is hour angle of the sun?
a) Angle of radiation with earth’s surface
b) Angle between the hands of sun dial
c) Angle made by the sun’s rays with moon’s surface
d) Orientation of earth with respect to sun
Answer: d
13. What is solar intensity?
a) Amount of outgoing solar energy
b) Amount of incoming solar energy on a plane surface
c) Amount of outgoing solar energy on a plane surface per unit time
d) Amount of incoming solar energy on a plane surface per unit time per unit area
Answer: d
14. What is solar azimuth angle?
a) Orientation of earth with respect to sun
b) Orientation of moon with respect to sun
c) Angle of radiation with earth’s surface
d) Angular distance between zero azimuth and sun’s projection on ground
Answer: d
15. Diffuse radiation models can be classified into ________ and __________
a) direct and reflective
b) adiabatic and isotropic
c) isotropic and anisotropic
d) anisotropic and adiabatic
Answer: c
16. What is biomass?
a) Organic materials from living organisms
b) Inorganic materials from living organisms
c) Inorganic materials from non-living organisms
d) Organic materials from non-living organisms
Answer: a
17. Which of the following can be classified under biomass?
a) Steel
b) Organic molecules containing hydrogen
c) NaOH
d) Iron
Answer: b
18. Which of the following is not used as food for humans?
a) Sugars
b) Glucose
c) Cellulosic matter
d) Fats
Answer: c
19. __________ is an example of cellulosic biomass.
a) Glucose
b) Fats
c) Lipids
d) Agricultural residue
Answer: d
20. Value of any biomass depends on ___________ properties.
a) chemical and physical
b) chemical and photo sensitive
c) physical and photo sensitive
d) the number of carbon molecules and on the number of tin molecules
Answer: a
21. Which of the following are characterizes an ideal energy crop?
a) High yield, high energy input to produce, high cost and high nutrient requirements
b) High yield, low energy input to produce, low cost and low nutrient requirements
c) High yield, high energy input to produce, low cost and high nutrient requirements
d) Low yield, high energy input to produce, high cost and high nutrient requirements
Answer: b
22. Which energy forms can biomass be converted to?
a) Electrical and light
b) Light and chemical
c) Electrical and heat
d) Heat and light
Answer: c
23. The heating value is expressed in BTU/kg.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
24. What does heat value indicate?
a) Amount of energy consumed by biomass to produce energy
b) Amount of energy required to process biomass to produce energy
c) Amount of energy required as heat by the organisms
d) Amount of energy that is available in the fuel
Answer: d
25. What is higher heating value?
a) Amount of energy available in the fuel + energy contained in water vapour in the exhaust gases
b) Total amount of energy available in the fuel – energy contained in water vapour in the exhaust gases
c) Total amount of energy available in the fuel * energy contained in water vapour in the exhaust gases
d) Total amount of energy available in the fuel
Answer: a
26. What is lower heating value?
a) Amount of energy available in the fuel + energy contained in water vapour in the exhaust gases
b) Total amount of energy available in the fuel – energy contained in water vapour in the exhaust gases
c) Total amount of energy available in the fuel / energy contained in water vapour in the exhaust gases
d) Total amount of energy available in the fuel which cannot be used
Answer: b
27. High moisture fuels burn readily and provide more useful heat per unit mass.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
28. Moisture content can be calculated on two bases, namely _______
a) light and heavy
b) weighted and even
c) wet and dry
d) light and dry
Answer: c
29. What are the main components of cellulosic biomass?
a) Hemicellulose and lignin
b) Hemicellulose and sugars
c) Cellulose, sugars and fats
d) Cellulose, hemicellulose and lignin
Answer: d
30. Biomass is seasonal.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
31. Which of the following can be classified under solid biomass?
a) Agricultural residues
b) Waste water
c) Industrial effluents into rivers
d) Plastic
Answer: a
32. What are energy crops?
a) Crops grown to remove insects
b) Crops grown to be used in generating energy
c) Crops grown to feed people
d) Crops that produce energy
Answer: b
33. Which of the following are examples of energy crops?
a) Banyan
b) Mango
c) Herbaceous and woody
d) Apple and herbaceous
Answer: c
34. What are herbaceous crops?
a) Insecticides
b) Rice
c) Agricultural fertilizers
d) Agricultural byproducts
Answer: d
35. Which of the following are examples of woody biomass?
a) Fallen trees due to natural disasters
b) Mint
c) Columbine
d) Agricultural byproducts
Answer: a
36. Which of the following are examples of lipids?
a) Sugar
b) Palm oil
c) Glucose
d) Cellulose
Answer: b
37. Which of the following can be used to replenish nutrients in soil?
a) Steel
b) Soda
c) Biomass ash
d) Coal ash
Answer: c
38. Which of the following is an example of short rotation coppice?
a) Maize
b) Wheat
c) Corn
d) Willow
Answer: d
39. Algae are used as feedstocks for bioenergy.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
40. Which of the following found in municipal waste can be used as biomass?
a) Agricultural residue
b) Kitchen waste
c) Residential garbage
d) Plastic covers
Answer: b
41. Land fill is an example of wet waste.
a) False
b) True
Answer: b
42. __________ wastes are used as methane boosters.
a) Agricultural
b) Forestry
c) Industrial
d) Municipal
Answer: c
43. __________ biomass is used for waste water treatment.
a) Agricultural
b) Industrial
c) Municipal
d) Aquatic
Answer: d
44. Which of the following parameters is used to define sustainability of biogas feedstock?
a) Heating value
b) Calorific value
c) C:N ratio
d) Thermal voltage
Answer: c
45. Which of the following is not a biomass resource?
a) Animal wastes
b) Forestry residue
c) Agricultural residue
d) Sunlight
Answer: d
46. Which of the following technologies are used to convert biomass into useful energy forms?
a) Bio-chemical process
b) Galvanization
c) Doping
d) Photoelectric effect
Answer: a
47. What are the four main types of thermo-chemical processes?
a) Galvanization, photovoltaic effect, chemo-mechanical effect, pyrolysis
b) Pyrolysis, gasification, combustion, hydrothermal processing
c) Pyrolysis, gasification, combustion, doping
d) Photovoltaic effect, gasification, combustion, hydrothermal processing
Answer: b
48. What are the two primary processes under bio-chemical conversion?
a) Photosynthesis and respiration
b) Photosynthesis and photovoltaic
c) Anaerobic digestion and fermentation
d) Anaerobic digestion and photosynthesis
Answer: c
49. Which of the following is an example of physio-chemical conversion technique to convert biomass into usable forms of energy?
a) Pyrolysis
b) Gasification
c) Anaerobic Digestion
d) Extraction with esterification
Answer: d
50. Which of the following is a product of pyrolysis of biomass?
a) Producer gas
b) Steel
c) Agricultural residue
d) Sodium
Answer: a
51. Pyrolysis occurs in the presence of _______ oxygen.
a) large amounts of
b) absence of
c) extremely large amount of
d) low amounts of
Answer: b
52. Which of the following best indicates the process of gasification?
a) Biomass → carbon dioxide and water → producer gas and charcoal → carbon monoxide and hydrogen
b) Biomass → carbon monoxide and hydrogen → carbon dioxide and water → producer gas and charcoal
c) Biomass → producer gas and charcoal → carbon dioxide and water → carbon monoxide and hydrogen
d) Producer gas and charcoal → carbon dioxide and water → carbon monoxide and hydrogen → biomass
Answer: c
53. Which of the following is best suited for hydrothermal processing?
a) Forestry byproducts
b) Wheat
c) Corn
d) Sewage sludge
Answer: d
54. What is hydrothermal processing?
a) Heating aqueous slurries of biomass at high pressures to produce products of greater energy density
b) Heating aqueous slurries of biomass at high temperatures to produce products of lower energy density
c) Heating aqueous slurries of biomass at low pressures to produce products of greater energy density
d) Heating aqueous slurries of biomass at low temperatures to produce products of lower energy density
Answer: a
55. What is anaerobic digestion?
a) Produces biogas by heating the biomass
b) Produces biogas using micro-organisms operating in anaerobic conditions
c) Produces biogas by subjecting the biomass to high pressures
d) Produces biogas using micro-organisms operating in aerobic conditions
Answer: b
56. Catalytic liquefaction occurs at _________
a) low temperature, low pressure
b) high temperature, high pressure
c) low temperature, high pressure
d) high temperature, low pressure
Answer: c
57. Sugarcane is used to produce ethanol.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
58. Which of the following are used to produce ethanol when water is not available in plenty?
a) Sugarcane
b) Wheat
c) Corn
d) Sorghum
Answer: d
59. Which of the following are commonly used in fermentation process?
a) Yeast
b) Bacteria
c) Mushrooms
d) Virus
Answer: a
60. Fermentation is aerobic process.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
61. Which of the following is a product of biomass gasification?
a) Hydrogen
b) Steel
c) Carbon (solid)
d) Iron
Answer: a
62. What is water-gas shift reaction?
a) Carbon dioxide + water → Carbon monoxide + Hydrogen + small heat
b) Carbon monoxide + water → Carbon dioxide + Hydrogen + small heat
c) Carbon dioxide + water + heat → Carbon monoxide + Hydrogen
d) Carbon monoxide + water + heat → Carbon dioxide + Hydrogen
Answer: b
63. Which of the following temperature ranges are suitable for biomass gasification?
a) Above 1000 degree Celsius
b) Between 500 and 600 degree Celsius
c) Between 700 and 1000 degree Celsius
d) Less than 500 degree Celsius
Answer: c
64. What are the three main types of gasifiers?
a) Fixed bed, hydrothermal liquefaction and carbonisation
b) Fixed bed, fluidized gasifiers and carbonisation
c) Carbonisation, liquefaction and entrained flow gasifiers
d) Fixed bed, fluidized gasifiers and entrained flow gasifiers
Answer: d
65. Biomass is moved at a very slow rate in fixed bed gasifier.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
66. How is the biomass material and gasification agent fed into an updraft gasifier?
a) Biomass from top, gasifying agent from top
b) Biomass from top, gasifying agent from bottom
c) Biomass from bottom, gasifying agent from top
d) Biomass from bottom, gasifying agent from bottom
Answer: b
67. What is the contaminant in the product gas that is withdrawn from a low temperature zone in a fixed bed gasifier?
a) Gold
b) Platinum
c) Tar
d) Nickel
Answer: c
68. The product gas removed from the low temperature zone undergoes _______ before being used as fuel in combustion for electricity generator.
a) liquefaction
b) condensation
c) evaporation
d) cleaning
Answer: d
69. How is the biomass material and gasification agent fed into a downdraft gasifier?
a) Biomass from top, gasifying agent from top
b) Biomass from top, gasifying agent from bottom
c) Biomass from bottom, gasifying agent from left side
d) Biomass from top, gasifying agent from right side
Answer: a
70. The tar content of the product gas in downdraft gasifier is _______ updraft gasifier.
a) equal to
b) less than
c) greater than
d) cleaner than
Answer: b
71. Which of the following applications is the product gas from downdraft gasifier suitable for?
a) Fuel for combustion engine
b) Fuel for burning wood
c) Fuel for internal combustion engine
d) Fuel for household purposes
Answer: c
72. Which of the following applications can the producer gas be used for?
a) Producing nickel
b) Producing copper
c) Producing glucose
d) Producing methanol
Answer: d
73. Which of the following are keys to design a gasifier?
a) Reducing biomass to charcoal and converting charcoal at suitable temperature to produce carbon monoxide and hydrogen
b) Oxidizing biomass to charcoal and converting charcoal at suitable temperature to produce carbon monoxide and hydrogen
c) Reducing biomass to charcoal and converting charcoal at suitable temperature to produce carbon dioxide and hydrogen
d) Oxidizing biomass to charcoal and converting charcoal at suitable temperature to produce carbon dioxide and hydrogen
Answer: a
74. How does air enter and exit in a cross-draft gasifier?
a) Air enters from one of the sides and exits from the top
b) Air enters from one side and exits from the other
c) Air enters from one of the sides and exits from the bottom
d) Air enters from the bottom and exits from the top
Answer: b
75. Ash sticks to the side in a cross-draft gasifier.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
76. Which of the following is a substrate for biogas production?
a) Municipal and residential waste
b) E-waste
c) Metallic waste
d) Gaseous effluents
Answer: a
77. Which of the following is a preferred substrate for biogas production? Note that TS stands for total solids.
a) Less than 1% TS
b) 20-40% TS
c) 1-5% TS
d) 5-10% TS
Answer: b
78. What are the categories for organic dry matter on the basis of total solids (TS)?
a) Low grade, medium grade, high grade and fixed bed
b) Low grade, medium grade, fluidized bed and fixed bed
c) Low grade, medium grade, high grade and solids
d) Downdraft, circulation fluidized bed, high grade and fixed bed
Answer: c
79. Which among the following is the best source for methane production?
a) Metallic scrap
b) E-waste
c) Plastic waste
d) Water hyacinth
Answer: d
80. Which of the following is used to produce biogas from biomass?
a) Anaerobic treatment
b) Aerobic treatment
c) Fermentation
d) Pyrolysis
Answer: a
81. Which of the following best indicates the steps of anaerobic digestion?
a) Waste water feed → biogas storage → generator → biogas
b) Waste water feed → digester → biogas → biogas storage → generator
c) Generator → waste water feed → digester → biogas → biogas storage
d) Waste water feed → biogas → digester → biogas storage → generator
Answer: b
82. Which of the following best indicates the steps inside an anaerobic digester?
a) Hydrolysis → methanogenesis → acetogenesis → acidogenesis
b) Hydrolysis → acidogenesis → methanogenesis → acetogenesis
c) Hydrolysis → acidogenesis → acetogenesis → methanogenesis
d) Methanogenesis → acidogenesis → acetogenesis → hydrolysis
Answer: c
83. What occurs in the hydrolysis step of anaerobic digestion?
a) Large polymers combine with water molecules
b) Large polymers break down to form water molecules
c) Small polymers combine to form large polymers with the help of water molecules
d) Large polymers break down into amino acids, fatty acids and simple sugars
Answer: d
84. Acidogenesis further break down the molecules received from hydrolysis in anaerobic digestion.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
85. Which of the following is produced in acetogenesis?
a) Ethanol
b) Acetate
c) Acetone
d) Ketone
Answer: b
86. Which of the following is produced apart from acetates in acetogenesis step in anaerobic digestion?
a) Carbon monoxide
b) Charcoal
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Acetone
Answer: c
87. What are the two ways to produce methane in methanogenesis step?
a) Converting carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide into methane
b) Converting carbon monoxide and acetic acid (or acetate) into methane
c) Converting methane into carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
d) Converting carbon dioxide and acetic acid (or acetate) into methane
Answer: d
88. Methanogens can directly use the products of hydrolysis to produce methane.
a) False
b) True
Answer: a
89. What are the two main products of anaerobic digestion?
a) Carbon monoxide and hydrogen
b) Methane and carbon dioxide
c) Methane and carbon monoxide
d) Hydrogen and carbon dioxide
Answer: b
90. Gases emitted from the digester indicates the amount of biomass left to be broken down.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
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